I decided to move some discussion from this post up to the top level here. Specifically, Watoosh wrote: "Well, if violence is defined as initiation of force (which, of course, presupposes certain property rights), then I think Rockwell is correct..." Well, if we define cats as elephants, then many people keep elephants in their house. More seriously, firstly, violence is not usually defined that way. It's defined as, you know, violence, so that, say, someone may respond violently or non-violently to someone who aggresses against them. Otherwise, it would make no sense to say, for instance, "He punched me, but I did not stoop to violence in response." And, secondly, the libertarian usage of "initiation of force" is very offbeat. If I wander onto someone's meadow, most people would not say I had "initiated force" -- I mean, sure, I used "force" against the earth to push off walking, but that's not force directed against...
I tried to understand this--I really tried--but--and I subscribed to the Economist for two years (well, OK, someone did, and I read it) and, in addition having read it almost literally cover to cover and having the only two letters I ever sent to any magazine published therein--(END 1st-order hyphen-mediated subordination)--I am sorry, but I still don't truly understand (though I am shamelessly pretending to the contrary among the more guideable very young).
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