A Nail Biter (in the Popular Vote)

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It really amazes me how close this thing is, in terms of the popular vote. As of this writing, it is Obama 50% and McCain 49%.

Do you think "they" do it this way on purpose? Just like the people running the NFL, NBA, etc. try to make sure that it's always competitive, to keep the fans interested?

And if so, what is the purpose? To keep us divided, and always fearful of "those evil #$()# Repuplicans/Democrats" staging a comeback in two years?

Comments

  1. gcallah1:43 AM

    You should the West before posting this -- it's not nearly that close!

    ReplyDelete
  2. Bob Murphy8:49 AM

    And you should include verbs in your sentences.

    But anyway, even the final tally--52% vs. 46%--isn't that far apart. I remember when I was younger and people said Reagan got re-elected "in a landslide," I was expecting to hear that he won 75% of the vote or something.

    So I'm just pointing out, that it is odd how close these things are, in an absolute sense. A Public Choice theorist would say "median voter theorem, duh"--meaning the two candidates move to the center to pick up middling voters.

    But I also wonder if the Powers That Be like it this way, to keep the public divided and more dependent on "their guys" when they are in power.

    Of course, the fact that (some) communist countries just have one party tends to hurt my hypothesis. Presumably those people wouldn't like having an alternating string of parties in power.

    Eh, but then again you could say the best thing of all (for them) is to have the same power under two different brand names, so the people always get Big Gov't but also feel that they're choosing.

    ReplyDelete
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